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Question 1:
The OSN 1800V supports the following packet protection features:
A. Tunnel APS
B. LAG
C. TPS
D. PW APS
Correct Answer: A
Question 2:
If the LED indicator value on the SCC board of the OSN 8800 T32 board is 11, which of the following is the subrack ID?
A. Slave subrack 2
B. Slave subrack 1
C. Slave subrack 17
D. Slave subrack 11
Correct Answer: D
Question 3:
Which of the following standards must be met for the isolation test in the feature test of the multiplexer/demultiplexer?
A. <20dB
B. >25dB
C. >20dB
D. <25dB
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
In the scenario where the non-convergence OTU processes OTN standard signals, both A and B are WDM sites.The OTU at station A accesses four channels of R_LOS signals on the client side. After being processed in the middle part and on the WDM side of the OTU at station A, the alarm signals are then sent to station B. The ODUk_PM_AIS alarm of the corresponding channel is generated in the middle part of station B. The ODUk_PM_AIS alarm is detected in the client device.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Question 5:
Loopback is a common operation for routine maintenance and troubleshooting. Which of the following statements about loopback operations are incorrect?
A. The hardware loopback is performed by using the fiber jumper or self-loop cable to perform the loopback on the optical port or electrical port.
B. When performing a hardware loopback on an optical port, you need to add an optical attenuator.
C. After the outloop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the internal.
D. After the inloop is performed, the signals are transmitted to the external.
Correct Answer: A
Question 6:
Which of the following statements about the electrical-layer overhead processing – source function are correct?
A. The OPUk performs client signal mapping, frequency adjustment, and rate adaptation in the transmit direction.
B. The ODUkT calculates the BIP-8 and writes the it into the TCMi.
C. OTUk calculates BIP-8 and writes it into SM, GCCO, FAS, and MAFS.
D. The ODUkP calculates overheads such as BIP-8, PM, and GCC1/2.
Correct Answer: C
Question 7:
Which of the following is approximately equal to 100mw?
A. 13dBm
B. 20dBm
C. 15dBm
D. 10dBm
Correct Answer: B
Question 8:
Which of the following statements about the line fiber quality monitoring performance parameters is wrong?
A. The pulse width of emitted optical pulses varies according to monitoring modes, and affects the detection distance and measurement precision. A greater pulse width provides a larger dynamic range, longer detection distance and better measurement precision.
B. When the pulse width increases, the light emitting time increases and consequently a larger energy is obtained. This means that a larger dynamic range can be acquired but also larger dead zones will result.
C. Measurement is performed multiple times within the detection time. The average value is obtained based on the measurement results to improve the measurement precision. The actual duration from the time when a detection event starts to the time when the detection results are returned will be longer than the Detection time.
D. The total fiber loss will affect the detection distance and the dynamic range is fixed for the same detection mode. Therefore, a larger total fiber loss indicates a smaller detection distance.
Correct Answer: D
Question 9:
Which of the following OTN trails does not need to be manually configured on an ROADM site, and can search out directly?
A. OSC
B. OCh
C. OMS
D. OTS
Correct Answer: B
Question 10:
Which of the following statements about ROADM are correct?
A. ROADM technology uses the NMS software to deliver configurations to implement the wavelength adding/dropping and pass-through status.
B. NG WDM equipment supports ROADM with fixed spectrum and Flexible ROADM with flexible spectrum.
C. ROADM can adjust the optical power of the pass-through wavelength and the added wavelength.
D. OandM personnel need to provide onsite support for wavelength adjustment at ROADM sites.
Correct Answer: C
Question 11:
Which of the following statements about the modulation technologies of the 40Gbit/s and 100Gbit/s coherent systems are correct?
A. The modulation technology used in a 100G coherent system is ePDM-QPSK.
B. The modulation technology used in a 40G coherent system is ePDM-BPSK.
C. The modulation technology used in a 40G coherent system is ePDM-QPSK.
D. The modulation technology used in a 100G coherent system is ePDM-BPSK.
Correct Answer: A
Question 12:
Dispersion compensation is not required for 40 Gbit/s and 100 Gbit/s coherent systems because the dispersion tolerance of coherent boards is large. NG WDM products do not support hybrid transmission of non-coherent and coherent networks.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
In a WDM system, after a distance of transmission, the OSNR of the signals at the receive end decreases to a certain extent. Which of the following is the main cause?
A. Use of EDFA
B. The fiber attenuation is too large.
C. New optical fiber is not used.
D. Use of Demultiplexer Multiplexer
Correct Answer: B
Question 14:
Which of the following is not a PW APS switching condition?
A. A warm reset is performed on the board.
B. The board software is faulty.
C. MPLS_PW_SF
D. A cold reset is performed on the board.
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
Which of the following statements about MPLS is wrong?
A. MPLS has two planes: control plane and forwarding plane. The control plane is connection-oriented, the forwarding plane is connectionless.
B. MPLS is not a service or application. It is a standard routing and switching platform that supports various upper-layer protocols and services.
C. In the packet transport field, the MPLS technology is mainly used to construct tunnels to carry various types of services (for example, TDM, ATM, and Ethernet) transmitted by PWE3 to implement end-to-end transmission of services on packet networks.
D. MPLS packet forwarding is based on labels.
Correct Answer: A
